Clinic Orientation Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Is it permissible for another intern to use the PT equipment you checked out after you are done, as long as you return it and it is cleaned?
• Which statement best defines Abuse?
• For onset greater than 12 weeks ago, what is the recommended visit frequency?
• In a clinic, which waste category requires disposal in designated biohazard containers?
• How should a clinic address a patient’s latex allergy in the equipment and supply chain?
• Which statement best defines Waste?
• Which practice best protects patient privacy when interacting in crowded waiting areas?
• Which formula correctly calculates body mass index (BMI)?
• How should you respond to a latex allergy in the clinic environment?
• General Health 2 Parker Panel has which test in it in place of thyroid testing?
• An exacerbation of a pre-existing chronic condition is AKA which term?
• For a NEW condition/illness/injury in an established patient, which CPT code applies?
• Which statement about the spine codes 98940, 98941, and 98942 is true?
• Which part of Medicare covers prescription drugs?
• Necessity for treatment is best described as which of the following?
• Which step is the first action in an effective clinic emergency action plan when a patient collapses?
• What is the process for medication reconciliation at intake?
• What approach should you take if a patient has limited literacy and needs help reading medical information?
• Which statement defines a New patient?
• For CMS patients, where should the subluxation code be entered on the superbill?
• Re-examination of an established patient is also referred to as which term?
• When a patient requests access to medical records, which action is appropriate?
• What is the maximum number of days allowed to obtain your CFD signature?
• What percentage of diagnosis comes from history?
• For Group C & D conditions in a NEW patient (nerve, disc, and degenerations), which CPT code applies?
• Under HIPAA, which rights do patients have?
• A BMI of 28.0 falls into which category?
• Which labeling practice is required for specimens collected in the clinic?
• Which sequence is the correct doffing order for PPE to minimize self-contamination?
• What is the recommended visit frequency when onset is less than 6 weeks ago?
• During AED use in a clinic, after a shock is advised, what should you do?
• How should allergy alerts be utilized in the electronic health record (EHR)?
• Which statement best reflects the rule for diagnostic testing in the clinic?
• Which statement about diagnosis contributions is correct?
• For documentation required by third-party payers, which two diagnoses must be documented?
• Which elements are included in a standard SOAP note?
• For treatment duration of 2-4 weeks, what is the maximum number of visits?
• Why is recapping needles discouraged?
• Who may authorize radiographic films if your CFD is not available?
• What are the essential steps to document and report safety events or near-misses?
• Which action is part of documenting and supporting telemedicine visits?
• What is the role of cultural competency and health literacy in patient education?
• Which group corresponds to a visit max of 24 visits?
• If 80% of the diagnosis comes from history, what is the combined contribution of the remaining sources (exams and labs/x-ray)?
• Which group corresponds to a visit max of 12 visits?
• Which of the following is an example of a transmission-based precaution?
• How should allergies be documented and communicated in the clinic chart?
• Before returning PT equipment, what must you do?
• How should a clinic respond to a data breach or suspected privacy violation?
• When a patient requests access to medical records, what steps should you take?
• For treatment duration of 4-6 weeks, what is the maximum number of visits?
• To check out a fifth file at the same time, which requirement is needed?
• Which of the following is one of the five moments for hand hygiene according to WHO?
• What is the maximum number of files you can check out at one time without special documentation?
• Which statement correctly describes the Medicare file handling at checkout?
• Which abbreviation is commonly discouraged due to misinterpretation risks?
• What is a typical normal heart rate range for adults?
• Parker does not get their saliva testing through LabCorp; they get it through which company?
• Which group corresponds to a visit max of 30 visits?
• What is the purpose of informed refusal and how should it be documented?
• Which region does code M99.05 cover?
• What sequence best describes a proper incident response to a suspected data breach?
• Part C is commonly described as which of the following?
• For a NEW patient with Group A & B conditions such as Pain, Spasms, SP/ST, trigger points, fascitis, and facet issues, which CPT code applies?
• What is the purpose of an allergy alert in the chart and how should it be used by the care team?
• Where is the radial pulse located?
• Which item is NOT part of PART?
• Which statement accurately describes handling prescription medications, OTCs, and samples?
• What is the difference between a patient portal and an in-person portal for patient engagement?
• Which of the following is a common pulse point?
• Which statement is true about diastolic blood pressure?
• Which option correctly represents the diagnosis composition: 80% history, 10% exams, 10% labs/x-ray?
• What should you do with the superbill at checkout?
• The following conditions—acute arthropathies, acute fractures or dislocations (or healed fractures with signs of instability), an unstable os odontoideum, malignancies involving the vertebral column, infection of bones or joints of the vertebral column, myelopathy or cauda equina syndrome, vertebrobasilar insufficiency syndrome, and an artery aneurysm—are examples of what?
• If a radiographic requisition form is signed and dated, when must the X-rays be taken?
• What constitutes a safe, ethical approach to discussing patient finances in a clinic?
• What is a normal adult respiratory rate?
• For treatment duration of 6-8 weeks, what is the maximum number of visits?
• Articular hypermobility, severe demineralization of the bone, benign bone tumors (spine), bleeding disorders and anticoagulant therapy, radiculopathy with progressive neurological signs are all examples of what?
• Which steps are involved in inbound/outbound referrals and ensuring patient follow-up?
• How do you verify patient identity before procedures or medication administration?
• Where does your diagnosis come from?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a reason for a claim denial?
• What is the correct diagnosis order for CMS visits?
• What does CMS stand for in this context?
• Is it allowed to check out more than four files at once without any additional documentation?
• Which of the following correctly pairs a transmission-based precaution with when it's used?
• Which steps describe basic wound care instructions and documentation in a clinic visit?
• When should you use soap and water versus alcohol-based hand sanitizer?
• Which statement best defines systolic blood pressure?
• What modifier is used if an ABN is signed and filed?
• The General Health 1 Parker Panel has which test in it?
• Which QVAS threshold is used to classify recovery care?
• What are safe practices for labeling and handling patient specimens for testing?
• If there are 4 sections of the spine involved, which code would apply?
• Which statement best describes chain-of-custody for specimens?
• Which statement best describes the relationship of the problems list to the chief complaint?
• For treatment duration of 8-10 weeks, what is the maximum number of visits?
• Which statement best describes the requirement for documenting chain of custody during specimen labeling in a clinic?
• Are files allowed to be removed from the clinic to the Donovan Lounge?
• Which practices support patient privacy in public spaces such as waiting rooms?
• How is onset date tracked for CMS patients compared to all other visits?
• Which code corresponds to the Lumbar region?
• What is required to check out PT equipment?
• Are you allowed to treat your boyfriend or girlfriend in the clinic?
• What is a primary role of an electronic health record in patient safety and legal compliance?
• Which sequence correctly describes the donning of PPE?
• PART is used to assess a patient in clinic. What four components does PART stand for?
• What is required on the radiographic requisition form before X-rays are taken?
• Which statement best reflects Medicare coverage for physical therapy?
• What is the primary purpose of HIPAA in a clinic setting?
• Which statement best defines Fraud in healthcare?
• Which code corresponds to 1-2 sections of the spine?
• Which statement correctly describes where the focus lies in each patient case assessment?
• Which statement correctly differentiates privacy and confidentiality in clinical practice?
• Which feature of the chart helps ensure safe medication administration related to allergies?
• Which option is NOT a correct pairing of a CPT code to the number of spine sections it covers?
• What percentage of diagnosis comes from labs/tests/x-ray?
• What is a key purpose of recording safety events in a clinic log?
• What practice helps ensure correct patient identification throughout all steps of care in a clinic?
• What is accurate about the AT modifier?
• To be classified under recovery care, the QVAS score must be at least what?
• Which color file is associated with Medicare?
• Is it possible to have more than four files checked out at once?
• For onset N/A, what is the recommended visit frequency?
• Which element is included in the level of care in a treatment plan?
• Policy: Up to four files may be checked out at one time without extra documentation.
• What does one and done stand for?
• Which statement best defines an Established patient?
• Part A of Medicare is what?
• What is true about pharmaceutical samples?
• For onset 6-12 weeks ago, what is the recommended visit frequency?
• What is the purpose of the AT modifier?
• Which statement best describes how to support patients with limited literacy during medical information sharing?
• Which term is defined as services that are reasonable and necessary for the diagnosis or treatment of an illness or injury, or to improve the functioning of a malformed member?
• What is the purpose of documenting the reaction and severity of an allergy?
• How should interpreters be used to overcome language barriers, and what ethical considerations apply?
• Which elements should be included in the medication reconciliation at intake?
• Absolute Red Flags include which of the following conditions?
• What percentage of diagnosis comes from exams?
• Which Medicare Part covers hospital services?
• What is the clinic’s protocol if a needlestick exposure occurs?
• Which CPT code corresponds to 3-4 sections of the spine?
• Which option best describes the steps to properly manage a referral and track follow-up?
• Which of the following are essential telemedicine security and etiquette considerations?
• What is the diagnosis order for all other visits (outside CMS)?
• What best describes urgent vs non-urgent appointments and how triage affects scheduling?
• Which is NOT a part of the treatment plan?
• Which of the following best describes an Established patient?
• New Condition/illness/injury of an established patient corresponds to which CPT code?
• Which CPT code corresponds to 5 or more sections of the spine?
• Who is the only one authorized to provide a super bill no charge (NC)?
• Which Parker panel includes a thyroid panel?
• The subluxation code is used for what purpose in CMS coding?
• In the context of an initial patient visit, the term 'one and done' refers to which of the following?
• Which factors indicate necessity for treatment?
• Which statement about maintenance care aligns with its purpose?
• What is the correct characterization of the relationship between the problems list and the Diff Dx list?
• How should you handle a patient request to discontinue a treatment and what documentation is required?
• How should you discuss patient information to protect privacy?
• Which group corresponds to a visit max of 18 visits?
• Which action best supports infection control when a patient has a contagious illness?
• Which item must accompany the Medicare blue file at checkout?
• Which of the following is recommended to prevent look-alike/sound-alike medication errors?
• How many PART components must be documented to validate a subluxation?
• Re-examination/re-evaluation (short re-eval) of an established patient corresponds to which CPT code?
• What best describes patient education and how the teach-back method is used?
• Which statement lists the five elements that constitute informed consent?
• CMS (Medicare) will only pay for what codes?
• Part C of Medicare is what?
• For onset N/A, the frequency of visits is:
• What is the term when a chiropractic adjustment is contraindicated?
• PQRS applies to which patient population?
• What does OIG stand for?
• At a subsequent visit, which four questions should you ask?
• Parts of the Treatment Plan include which of the following?
• Which relationship is included in the clinic's Immediate Family rule prohibiting treatment?
• Which Parker panel includes a lipid panel instead of a thyroid panel?
• What is the process for releasing patient information to another provider while protecting privacy?
• Whose signature is required on the superbill used to check out PT equipment?
• At checkout, the Medicare blue file should be turned in to which location?
• Part B of Medicare is what?
• Define standard precautions and describe when they apply.
• Which statement best describes objective measures in a treatment plan?
• Describe safe sharps disposal practices in the clinic.
• What is maintenance care?
• Exacerbation of a pre-existing chronic condition (long re-evaluation) corresponds to which CPT code?
• To validate a subluxation, you must document two of the PART components, and at least one of them must be ROM or asymmetry.
• What is the recommended chest compression rate for adult CPR?
• For each patient case, what should the intern focus on?
• What is the term for when a patient requires more specialized attention during chiropractic adjustment?
• Which technique is correct for locating the radial pulse?
• To be classified under recovery care, the functional outcome score (such as NDI) must be at least what percent?